Rambam Hilchos Teshuvah 3:8

Question

What is the Rambam referring to when he elaborates on Nevuah, and talks about that G-d imparts knowledge (mada) into the hearts of men? Is he referring to Ruach HaKodesh? Or, is he just giving some sort of definition for Nevuah that pertains to this halacha? If he is just defining Nevuah, why does he feel the need to do so here? If he is talking about Ruach HaKodesh, what might be the parameters of that? For example, if someone accepts Rashi of the Godel Hador of his time and accepts that he was a holy person, and gives appropriate weight to his commentaries and piskie halacha, but does not believe that he wrote his commentaries on Chumash with Ruach haKodesh or if someone similarly does not believe that the targum of Onkelos or Yonathan ben Uziel were written with Ruach Ha Kodesh, is that on par with not believing in Nevuah? Similarly, (in addition to accepting their piskei halacha as halacha) would one need to assume that even the leaders of our generation are guided by ruach a Hakodesh?

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Answers

  1. The Just Ask! - AskTheRabbi.org Team

    I am not sure that I understand exactly what you are asking. If you are asking why the Rambam mentions prophecy and the hearts of men in the same sentence, it is because he defining – in a certain way – what prophecy is. That a person who denies that prophecy – i.e. that Hashem speaks to the hearts of people – exists, is denying one of the basic tenets of Judaism.

    Best wishes from the AskTheRabbi.org Team