Transliteration of Mishloach Manot

Question

Re: Giving Portions on Purim
What is the correct spelling – Mishloach Manot or Mishlo’ach Manot?
Does it matter? Why do some spell it with the apostrophe?

0

Answers

  1. The Just Ask! - AskTheRabbi.org Team

    Personally, I do not think that it makes any practical difference whatsoever. Although the “laws of transliteration” from Hebrew to English generally state that an apostrophe is used when transliterating the letter ‘ayin’ (which does not appear in Mishloach Manot), nevertheless, it is not a hard-and-fast rule. If you were to ask me how to spell ‘Mishloach Manot’ I would tell you Mishloach Manot without an apostrophe!

    Best wishes from the AskTheRabbi.org Team

  2. ev ba
    January 31, 2020 at 3:58 pm

    I found out the reason for the apostrophe in Mishlo’ach Manot.
    It is only for pronunciation reasons.

    Those familiar with the word pronounce it as Mish-lo-ach.
    Without the apostrophe, some people might pronounce the first word
    Mish-loach rhyming with “coach”.

    It is similar to the brand Rokeach.
    Those familiar with the brand say Ro-ke-ach.
    Those not familiar may say Ro-keach rhyming with “teach”.

  3. The Just Ask! - AskTheRabbi.org Team
    February 1, 2020 at 5:43 pm

    Thank you! That makes sense.

    Best wishes from the AskTheRabbi.org Team