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Hi, What are the Jewish commentaries about Isaiah 9:1: "The people that walked in darkness Have seen a brilliant light; On those who dwelt in a land of gloom Light has dawned." - Especially, Abarbanel, Radak, Malbim, Malbim beur hamilot?

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The names Potiphar and Potiphera are very similar. Is it the same person? I read one commentary, which says yes, (including Rashi) and another, which says no. MIKETZ Genesis 41:45 Pharaoh gave Asenath to Joseph for a wife. Asenath was the daughter of POTI PHERA, the governor of On. בַּת־פּ֥וֹטִי פֶ֛רַע כֹּהֵ֥ן אֹ֖ן VAYESHEV Genesis 37:36 The Midianites sold Joseph in Egypt to POTIPHAR, chief of the slaughterers. פֽוֹטִיפַר֙

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How do you interpret Isaiah 7:14, given that Isaiah 8:8 calls the entire land Immanuel’s land?

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I’ve a short question about Bereshit 18:1 regards the opening words: וירא אליו יהוה. Normally the word וירא (vayera) is translated as ‘He (G-d) appeared’, but the word is similar to וירא (vayara) which could be translated as ‘He (G-d) saw’. So could one translate the introduction as: And the Lord looked upon him by the terebinths (trees) of Mamre/in the plains (valley or vale) of Mamre, and he (Avraham) sat in/at the entrance of the tent in the heat of the day. Of course, it’s the Lord that speaks to Avraham later on asking him why Sarah laughed. And thus one could say וירא means ‘He appeared’ in this case such as is the case in other verses like Bereshit 12:7 and 17:1. Yet there are three men/heavenly abodes/angels who appear to Avraham. So one could also imagine the Lord didn’t appeared but looked upon Avraham after his circumcision and seeing him He sends these three visitors; it even says in verse 18:2 these visitors ‘stood above him’ as if they decended from heaven. Any commentaries which relate to this idea of G-d watching over Avraham instead of appearing to Him?

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Dear Rabbi, can you answer a question for me? Some friends and I were sitting around yesterday discussing something, and I mentioned that there are no vowels written down in the Torah. But I was at a loss to explain why not. So, how come there are no vowels written in the Torah? Thanks!

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"And the people were as murmurers, speaking evil in the ears of the LORD; and when the LORD heard it, His anger was kindled; and the fire of the LORD burnt among them, and devoured in the uttermost part of the camp." (Bamidbar 11:1) What are they say and why did Hashem burnt them?

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Dear Rabbi, I just want to know how the holy anointing oil was prepared.

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The phrase “inhabitants of Jerusalem” is used numerous times in the prophets, especially in Jeremiah. In Isaiah 8:14 it seems to indicate they are not Israel or Judah. “And he shall be for a sanctuary; but for a stone of stumbling and for a rock of offence to both the houses of Israel, for a gin and for a snare to the inhabitants of Jerusalem.” Does anyone know who exactly they were? Thank you

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Dear Rabbi, I am greatly perplexed by Isa. 43:10b. My English translations tend to render this part as ‘Before Me no god was formed, nor shall there be any after Me’. Needless to say, to an English reader this sounds a lot like HaShem is saying that He was Himself at some point formed (Isa. 43:13a seems to me to be saying the same thing too!). Can you help me understand these words? I cannot follow HaShem if He is not the Most High God!