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Dear Rabbi, thank you 1) About Rabbi Akiva, I checked it (Jerusalem Talmud, Ta'anit 24a:1) and I saw this sentences: תני ר' שמעון בן יוחי עקיבה ר' היה דורש (במדבר כ״ד:י״ז) דרך כוכב מיעקב דרך כוזבא מיעקב. ר' עקיבה כד הוה חמי בר כוזבה הוה אמר דין הוא מלכא משיחא Dear Rabbi, what is the exact translation of this? Especially this word: (דין) in this text. 2) Why was prophecy taken from the prophets and given to the Sages? 3) And is there any verse in Tanach that proves it? Thank you

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Dear Rabbi, Why does each tractate in the Talmud begin with page number two (the letter beit in Hebrew) and not on page one? Thank you.

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Dear Rabbi, Are these translations correct? 1) אמר אמימר וחכם עדיף מנביא שנאמר (תהלים צ, יב) ונביא לבב חכמה מי נתלה במי הוי אומר קטן נתלה בגדול Ameimar said: And a Sage is greater than a prophet, as it is stated: “And a prophet has a heart of wisdom” (Psalms 90:12) - Who is compared to whom? You must say the lesser is compared to the greater. 2) א"ר יוחנן מיום שחרב בית המקדש ניטלה נבואה מן הנביאים וניתנה לשוטים ולתינוקות Rabbi Yoḥanan said: From the day that the Temple was destroyed, prophecy was taken from the prophets and given to imbeciles and children. 3) אמר רבי אבדימי דמן חיפה מיום שחרב בית המקדש ניטלה נבואה מן הנביאים וניתנה לחכמים Rabbi Avdimi from Haifa says: From the day that the Temple was destroyed prophecy was taken from the prophets and given to the Sages. Dear Rabbi, and what is the exact translation of these commentaries? 4) יקהת, שם, וכן ליקהת אם (משלי ל') ופירושם משמעות ועבודת, אומר כי העמים יהיו נשמעים אליו ועובדים אותו, והיה זה לדוד וכל שכן למלך המשיח: 5) ועבדי דוד מלך. המלך המשיח יקרא שמו דוד לפי שיהיה מזרע דוד קראו דוד או רמז לתחיית המתים: 6) לָא יַעֲדֵי עָבֵד שָׁלְטַן מִדְּבֵית יְהוּדָה וְסַפְרָא מִבְּנֵי בְנוֹהִי עַד עָלְמָא עַד דְּיֵיתֵי מְשִׁיחָא דְּדִילֵיהּ הִיא מַלְכוּתָא וְלֵיהּ יִשְׁתַּמְּעוּן עַמְמַיָּא: Thanks

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Then Zipporah took a flint, and cut off the foreskin of her son, and cast it at his feet; and she said: 'Surely a bridegroom of blood art thou to me.' (Shemot 4:25) Why did Zipporah cast it at the feet of Moses and say this? I also think the verse have an inner meaning. Please kindly explain the verse

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Hello! I was pushing myself outside my comfort zone recently and decided to start memorizing the Tanak. To start out I went small and one of the books I now have memorized is Obadiah. It's really incredible the things you pick up on as you're committing these things to memory. It allows the brain to chew on a lot of different aspects of Scripture. So here are my questions. Why does Benjamin possess Gilead at the end of Obadiah? Why would it not be one of the 2 1/2 tribes that Moshe assigned the land to, *or* why would it not be Judah? And why is Benjamin the only tribe mentioned by name in this account of the People returning to the Promised Land? I've been mulling this over and I can't figure it out. Thanks for the help on this!

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I would like a direct translation of this verse from the Hos 6:2 from the WLC יחינו מימים ביום השלישי יקמנו ונחיה לפניו׃ how does mî-yō-mā-yim get translated to after two days? instead can it be translated "from the days (gone by) "?

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Dear Rabbi, in Genesis 49:10 we read: לֹֽא־יָס֥וּר שֵׁבֶט֙ מִֽיהוּדָ֔ה וּמְחֹקֵ֖ק מִבֵּין רַגְלָ֑יו עַ֚ד כִּי־יָבֹ֣א שילה [שִׁיל֔וֹ] וְל֖וֹ יִקְּהַ֥ת עַמִּים׃ Question: is this translation (from sefaria.org) correct? especially this word: (וּמְחֹקֵ֖ק) ?! The scepter shall not depart from Judah, Nor the ruler’s staff from between his feet; So that tribute shall come to him And the homage of peoples be his.