Torah

Shalom aleichem Rabbi Lauffer. Thank you for answering my last question. Rashi says that Avraham Avinu thought that the three angels were Arabs. How could Avraham think they were Arabs, though, when Arabs did not yet exist seemingly, as we hold that Arabs are the descendants of Yishmael, and Yishmael at this time had no children? Thanks a lot.

Gen 20:12 Abraham says Sarah is my sister, the daughter of my father (i.e., Terah), but not the daughter of my mother. Assuming Sarah was Iscah, Abraham married Sarah (Iscah), the daughter of his brother Haran. Therefore, Sarah was Abraham’s niece. Question: What does "Sarah is not the daughter of my mother" mean? It seems to imply that Abraham’s father (Terah) had two different wives – one was the mother of Abraham, one was the mother of Haran, and one of them was also Nahor’s mother. Also, does the bible provide the names of these wives? Thanks.

Unlike christianity, there is no concept of eternal hell in Judaism. However, Yeshayahu 66:24 seems to imply that there is eternal hell punishment for the evil. What is the proper interpretation of this verse?

How can Abraham refer to Sarah as his sister? Gen 11:27 Haran begot Lot Gen 11:29 Haran was the father of Milcah and the father of Iscah (1.) Why not write Haran begot a son, Lot, AND two daughters, Milchah and Iscah, in one sentence versus listing separately (in two different verses)? Gen 11:31 Terah took Abraham his son and Lot the son of Haran, his grandson The concept of grandchildren was known because Lot is referred to as Terah's grandson. Gen 20:12 Sarah is my sister, the daughter of my father, but not the daughter of my mother. (2.) If Sarah was Iscah, then Abraham married the daughter of his brother Haran. Therefore, Sarah was Abraham's niece, not his sister. Sarah was not the daughter of Terah, Abraham's father. Sarah was Terah's granddaughter. As stated previously, the concept of grandchildren was known. (3.) Sarah is not the daughter of my mother implies that Abraham's father(Terah) had two different wives - one was the mother of Abraham, one was the mother of Haran, and one of them was also Nahor's mother. Please provide answers. Thanks.

1. Abraham was 75 years old when he left Haran. Lot went with him. 2. Abraham was 99 years old when he was circumcised. Sodom & Gomorrah were destroyed a few days after Abraham's circumcision. Therefore, Abraham was 99 years old when Sodom and Gomorrah were destroyed. Lot was spared. 24 years have elapsed. QUESTION: Did Lot live in Sodom for 24 years? 3. We have been studying the destruction of Sodom. One of the sources states that Sodom was 52 years old vs Zoar was a younger city, which was only 51 years old. 4. I found this on the Internet: According to the Talmud, there was a span of only 26 years between a war in the area and and the ultimate destruction. I assume the war means the Battle of Siddim. 5. MAIN QUESTION: I am trying to figure out the 52 year timeline for Sodom and when the Battle of Siddim took place within the 52 year history. The 5 kings (which included Sodom) served the 4 kings (specifically Chedorlaomer) for 12 years. The 5 kings rebelled in the 13th year. In the Battle of Siddim, the 4 kings defeated the 5 kings. Did the Battle take place in the 14th year? Then Abraham defeated the 4 kings. Abraham also rescued Lot. I think the Battle happened when Abraham was still around 75 years old. 6. This accounts for 14 years of Sodom's history. Does that mean that Sodom existed 12 years before Chedorlaomer ruled over them? Based on the Talmud note above, did Sodom exist another 26 years after the Battle of Siddim? Thanks.

"Fret not thyself because of evil men, neither be envious of the wicked." (Proverbs 24:19). I read the commentary of Rashi but did not understand the verse. Please explain the verse.

Hi, 1- Was the book of Isaiah written down with the vowels or nekudot? 2- If no, so when were the vowels or nekudot add to this book?

Why is the Nun enlarged in Ruth Chapt 3 vs 13 1st word "lini"?

I am confused about Jeremiah 19:9 -- " I will make them eat the flesh of their sons and daughters, and they will eat one another’s flesh because their enemies will press the siege so hard against them to destroy them." I realize the context of the passage is a prophecy of coming judgment on Judah. But why would God say that he would "make" his people practice cannibalism? It seems clear to me that cannibalism would be immoral for anyone to do, whether the person was Jewish or Gentile.