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In short, the core of my question would be: Is there a rational basis for granting authority to scripture as the word of God? Or does it take a "non-rational" (in contrast to "irrational") act of faith to bridge the gap between logical deductions and religious belief?   A little bit about myself and where this question is coming from: I was born and raised in Israel as an Ultra-Orthodox Jew. At Young teenagehood I've rebelled against the religious lifestyle I was brought up with, and I've been living a secular life since. I'm currently in my early 30s and living in the US. In recent years, I've been expanding my interest in comparative religion, psychology and philosophy. All that in the wake of a powerful mystical experiences I've had. I personally find much inspiration and wisdom in the biblical scriptures. And from a strictly critical point of view, arguments for the existence of God, such as the ones made by Ibn Sina, Thomas Aquinas, the Ramba"m and many other epic thinkers, make sense and positively resonate even with a skeptic like myself. However, when it comes to the question of exclusive authority to scripture, the answer I often get would be something along the lines of "What do you mean?! it says so in the Bible!" I doubt there is any need for me to point out the fallacy in that kind of argument... The other answer I would often hear, is that the nature of revelation and prophecy themselves are sufficient as proof for the legitimacy of the scripture been the word of God. That actually might be a good argument, however it will fail to explain the exclusivity that is attributed to the Tora for example over other supposed revelations. In other words, how can one deduct the exclusivity of the revelations to 'legitimate' prophets like Moses upon other "false prophets" from Jesus and Muhammad all the way to Shabbatai Tzvi and Jacob Frank? All that without pointing back at the content of the Tora itself as proof. Mind you, if I were to examine my personal mystical experience from an early historical or even medieval context, there is a pretty good chance I would consider myself a profit. Of course from a contemporary point of view, I can say that it was no more than a naturally occurring altered state of consciousness, or a spontaneous psychedelic trip. (The nature of consciousness and experience, and the place divinity takes within the two is of course a subject for a whole other conversation)   "Faith" is a concept that takes central place in most if not all religions, and in the search for meaning, one might reach a point where there is no other choice but to take that 'leap of faith'. If that's the case, it might not be overwhelmingly compelling, but I'll see that as acceptable. After all, many central things in our life cannot be explained by rationality alone. Love, beauty, art and music are just examples...   I appreciate your time and hope to hear back from you soon.

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Mem~Resh~Dalet~Kaf~Yud spells Mordekai, meaning "little man" or "worshiper of Mars" He was the cousin and adoptive father of queen Esther; the son of Yair of the tribe of Binyamin. Mem~Resh~Dalet~Kaf spells Mrodak, meaning "thy rebellion." The letters spelling Mrodak, "thy rebellion," are in Mordekai . Is there a connection ? In these words are Resh~Dalet~Mem, which spells radam, a verb meaning "to be asleep." Mem~Resh~Dalet spells marad, a verb) meaning "to rebel against G-d, against light" Dalet~Resh~Kaf spells derek, which means way, road, habit, course of life, manner or character. Was Mordekai a man of smaller stature, as his name suggests? Surely, Mordekai wasn't a worshiper of the heathen deity Mars! 1 Samuel 25:25 says, "As his name is, so is he." Do the holy letters conceal yet reveal the character or nature of a person, place or thing? I find there is always a direct correlation of some kind. What's your view on this?

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Shalom Rabbi, The Garden of Eden story in Genesis is compelling. Yet, another interesting twist to the saga is the word "nagaph" - spelled Nun~Gimmel~Pei As a verb it means to push, defeat, stub, inflict, be smitten, stumble, plague, be stricken. Gimmel~Nun gan means garden. Pei~Gimmel - pag - "fig" - means crude, torpid (early) green fig. Gimmel~Pei~Nun - gephen is a vine tree. Could these be missing clues of "emeth"? Was the fickle "fig" the accursed culprit causing the fatal fall?

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Do you see (av) father, spelled Aleph~Bet; and also (chob) bosom, heart, spelled Chet~Bet in the word Chet~Bet~Aleph? Chaba as a verb means to conceal the self. Is not av, "the Father," hidden in the chob, the bosom of the heart? The words seem visible. The thoughts connect. Like a game of scrabble, I find, Hebrew letters play upon words. Rabbi ,wouldn't you agree that Torah has many layers that have yet to be peeled away? With great respect.

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How can God have control over the world if we have choice? I can choose to kill myself and God won’t make a miracle to stop it, therefore I have control. And He doesn’t. How is that?

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Christian thought tells you to praise Jesus, but this doesn’t sound correct. I’ve been following man most of my life and I’ve only reached dead ends. So I’ve been trying to understand how to build a relationship with G-d, inspired by Judaism that Jews are the chosen people with their right ears closest to hear G-d and I was wondering: Is this concept in Jewish thought mean to have faith in myself and acknowledge G-d directly?? And, if not, how can I build a relationship with G-d without the idolizing that I believe is happening when holding value to one man to fix all your problems instead of one’s self & the reassurance that G-d is in charge, starting the surrendering process by as easy as falling asleep? Am I on the right track?

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This is a difficult and extremely sensitive question that has stirred within my soul. I fully understand atrocities such as the Atlantic slave trade, the Holocaust,Trail of Tears , ethnic cleansing and genocide. This mirrors the spirit of Amaleq. It is a base,reprobate & murderous nature infused with superiority idealogy. Doesn't torah exempt obedient people of God's irrefutable covenant from such heinous acts ? Micah 2:7 Do not MY words do good to them that walk uprightly? Psalms 74:20 Have respect unto the covenant: for the dark places of the earth are full of habitations of cruelty. 1Samuel 14:6 For there is no restraint to YHVH to save by many or by few. Psalms 73:1 Truly G-d is good to Yisrael,to such as have a clean heart. Psalms 19:11 Moreover by them(judgements of G-d) is your servant warned: and in keeping of them there is great reward. 2Chronicles 19:7 For there is no iniquity with YHVH our G-d,nor respect of persons,nor taking of gifts. Proverbs 24:23 These things also belong to the wise. It is not good to have respect of persons in judgment. I realize all the situations mentioned above slavery, Trail of Tears,ethic cleansing,genocide correspond to gowy nations. Man's inhumanity to men. Torah coverage didn't apply. Unfortunate indeed! Yet the holocaust baffles the mind. Why did the Jews have to suffer this way? Proverbs 24:11 If thou for bear to deliver them that are drawn unto death,and those that are ready to be slain; Proverbs 24:12 If thou say,Behold we knew it not;Does not He that ponders the heart consider it? and He that keeps they soul, does He not know it? and shall He render to every man according to his works? Numbers 23:19 El not a man that He should lie. I sincerely hope you can clarify this?

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How can God have control over the world if we have choice? I can choose to kill myself and God won’t make a miracle to stop it, therefore I have control. And He doesn’t. How is that?

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I have seen commentaries on Torah assign the name El-kim to Hashem when referring to him despite Genesis 1:1 being written as El-him. What is the deal with this and why is there a change?

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I wanted to know why we respect our elders. One reason I heard is because they’re closer to Sinai, but why does that merit respect?