Question

Question

my question relates to oral sex on a man. I understand that there is debate over this being an accepted activity between a married couple. But if it was accepted, what would be the appropriate choice be once the man has finished ie: is it considered acceptable to swallow? Is there an argument that doing so is cannibalism? If the source is a Jewish man, is there an issue with kashrut law? I guess, to sum up, what’s the deal with giving oral sex to a man?

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Answers

  1. The Just Ask! - AskTheRabbi.org Team

    It is permissible for a for a wife to perform oral sex on her husband but only on the condition that ejaculation takes place only in the vagina. However, it is clear that it must cause the wife pleasure. If the wife does not find that it enhances her feelings of sexual pleasure she should not do it – this is so regardless of how pleasurable the husband may find them.

    Best wishes from the AskTheRabbi.org Team