Plagues and Splitting of Red Sea
Question
Good morning, First, shalom (just bageling!) to R's Becher, Kohl and Rietti (in alphabetical order only) who presented a terrific program in Newport a couple of weeks ago--my first Gateway experience. Second, I wanted to follow up with R' Becher on my request for the name(s) of people I might ask for a blessing in the NYC area. Finally, I wanted to ask something about the historical records (or lack thereof) of the gentile world regarding the miracles of Passover. Doesn't it seem very odd that our tradition records these 10 spectacular events, happening one after another with 3 precisely weeks of warning before each one, affecting only the Egyptians while leaving the Jews in their midst unscathed--and yet the Egyptian record of events is silent on such a magnificent (or, tragic from their perspective) turn of events? And even if we posit the seemingly unrealistic premise that 100% of the Egyptians, who were on the losing end of this story, collectively omitted the story from their documentation of the day, still we should find stories of this specific chain of obviously related clear miracles meeting the exact descriptions of the plagues among Egypt's surrounding neighbors (i.e., those countries through whom the wild animals of the world commuted to maul Egyptians as part of one of the plagues). Also, our tradition notes that when we crossed the Sea of Reeds all waters in the world split--even the drink in a cup of water. So why don't we find a common story dating to that period from the Chinese, Irish, South Africans, etc. noting that miraculous day when the water split? After all, there are cultures with recorded history stretching back at least that far. Part of where this question is coming from is the belief that our religion's claim to authenticity is for me rooted in the claim that the entire people interacted with G-d at Sinai--a hard/impossible claim to invent and successfully pass down; so, if we can find that the entire world's population shares in our story of waters splitting our case is even stronger (but at the same time, what does it mean if our claim of worldwide waters splitting is uncorroborable in the accounts of the non-Jewish majority from that time?). Thanks in advance for your help with this, and please let me know if my question is unclear. David