Dear Rabbi, In the passuk " You shall not go about gossiping among your people, you shall not stand over the blood of your friend- I am Hashem." ìà úìê øëéì áòîéê/ ìà úòîåã òì ãí øòê/ àðé ä': Could you please answer as many questions as you can about this pasuk for me? ::::: a. Would you endanger yourself to save the life of another man? b. Why does it say “I am Hashem.” In the end of the verse? c. Why is it stated not to gossip and not to betray those of need in the same verse?(focus on this one please) d. What if you cannot do anything to help someone who is dying? e. Why does it say "do not stand" instead of "do not talk"? g. What sorts of things would one do to help someone in need? h. In what sorts of situations would you help a person that you find is dying? i. To what level can you help? j. To what level should you help? k. What counts as gossip? l. What if the person in need insists on receiving no help? m. Are you punished or considered a bad Jew if you consider not to be involved in a situation where you have to help a dying person? n. It says help a friend that is on the verge of dying, are you obligated to help a stranger or an enemy? o. If your greatest enemy is in danger, is it appropriate to leave him to die? thanks a lot, i appreciate your kindness and help

is the pasuk "Ye shall fear every man his mother, and his father, and keep my sabbaths: I [am] the LORD your God." (LEVITICUS 19:3) Some questions arrise. 1. why does it say "fear" in english and "honor" in Hebrew? 2. Why does it say "You" as in male, and "fear" in plural?

1. I have an electronic oven with a digital key pad and a digital read-out for temperture. There is no indicator light telling when the oven is heating up. Can the temperature be adjusted on Yom Tov? Can the door be opened on Yom Tov? 2. Can someone who lives in Israel and is visiting us (in Canada) be allowed do perform tasks on the second day of Yom Tov on our behalf? Thank you!

I'm trying to understand the nature of exigetical machloches. I wonder if you could help.Let me ask my question via example. Regarding Shemot 20:1 and the nation's response to the giving of the luchot, Rabbi Akiva says they said yes after every commandment. Rav Ishmael says they said yes after the positive ones and no after the negative ones. Are Rabbis Akiva and Ishamel arguing about an actual event? Are they arguing whether all of Israel actually said "Yes, yes" or "yes, no"? Or are they not actually considering what words were literally said but what the mind set of the people was? Rav Solveitchik says the "yes, yes" refers to acceptance of mitzvos without reason. "no, yes" means a concurrence with the meaning of the mitzvos. See explanation by Rav Soloveithcik, pasted below. Lastly, are they actually disagreeing or each offering a different aspect of the story and the mindset of the people? In other words, sometimes when we say Chazal disagree, we are really saying that each was offering a way to look at the matter. Thank you. ****The following is a summary of one portion of a lecture presented to the Rabbinical Council of America by Rabbi Yosef Ber Soloveitchik on June 22, 1972.**** The Ten Commandments are introduced in the book of Exodus by the words: "Vayedaber Elokim et kol hadvarim ha'eleh *laimor*" (Shmot 20:1) "And Elokim spoke all these words *saying*" Use of the word "laimor" generally means "to be repeated". For example the ubiquitous biblical phrase "Vayedaber Hashem el Moshe laimor" indicates that Hashem's words to Moshe were subsequently to be repeated by Moshe to B'nai Yisrael. Yet, on the basis of this explanation, use of the word "laimor" would seem puzzling in the context of the Ten Commandments, since Moshe was not in this case an intermediary: the Ten Commandments were given directly by Hashem to B'nai Yisrael. Faced with this anomaly, the Mechilta implies that in this context "laimor" means verbal acceptance by the entire nation (1). The precise nature of this communal response is the subject of a dispute between Rabbi Yishmael and Rabbi Akiva as quoted in the Mechilta on the above verse (2): "Laimor: 'Melamdim shehayu omrim al hen hen v'al lav lav' - divrei Rabbi Yishmael Rabbi Akiva omer: 'al hen hen v'al lav hen'" Rabbi Yishmael was of the view that B'nai Yisrael responded to each positive commandment with a positive affirmation ("yea"), and responded to each negative commandment with a "nay". For example: Anochi Hashem Elokecha (I am the L-rd your G-d) ---'hen' ("yea") Lo Tignov (You shall not steal) ---'lav' ("no") Rabbi Akiva, however, disagreed. He said that just as the positive commandments were received by a "yea", so too the negative commandments. For example: Anochi Hashem Elokecha---'hen' Lo Tignov---'hen' Two great rabbis have disagreed. What is the gist of this controversy, a disagreement which at first glance would seem trivial? To render the dispute understandable, the Rav used the following example. If he were to address himself to his grandson and say: "Moshe, don't associate with Johnny, he's a bad boy", his grandson's assent might be expressed in one of two ways. He could answer: "No, Zaidy, I shall not play with him" or "Yes, Zaidy, I shall not play with him". The difference between these two answers is one of motivation. If his response is "No Zaidy, I shall not play with him", Moshe means to say that he agrees with his grandfather's assessment of Johnny. He has no intention of playing with him because, indeed, Johnny is a bad boy. However, the affirmative response means "I accept your judgment even though I disagree with you: I myself do not see any harm in fraternizing with Johnny, but your order will be carried out". What motivation should prompt one's Mitzvah p

When we tell over the events of the Exodus on the night(s) of the Seder, we thank and praise G-d for saving us from slavery. When thinking about the chronicle of events, was it not G-d that originally brought us down to Egypt in the first place (during the time of Jacob & Joseph)? The question can be asked in a number of ways: If it was G-d that originally brought us down to Egypt & placed us into slavery as promised to Abraham, why we are we obligated to thank & praise him? OK, G-d did redeem His people and therefore we are obligated to thank & praise Him, but why is all the "blame" heaped on Pharaoh & the Egyptians - this was foretold to the Patriarchs by G-d Himself, so doesn't he bear some of the responsibility for what transpired to the Jews during their time in Egypt ?