Question
According to this answer, the Taz believes that a Talmid Chacham has the right to pasken for himself, however there is an exception if something has a previous status of prohibition. Can a Talmid Chacham pasken for himself something is not shaatnez using Chazaka under this logic, or since the previous status of whether it is shaatnez is unknown is that not valid in Halacha?

Question
According to Halacha, minhag of a married couple follows the husband. What is the Halacha about the minhag for a secular married couple who become Baalei Teshuvah later on? What about a religious woman who marriages a secular man who later becomes a Baal Teshuvah?

Question
According to a sugyah in the Talmud Yerushalmithere were rabbis who held the opinion you should recite a beracha when taking off tefillin. Why nowadays do almost no Jews practice that, with the only exception I know being Rabbi David Bar Hayim?

Question
There’s responsa from Tzitzit Eliezer where I think he says Jews born with both man and woman characteristics can choose their gender (not transgender, an indeterminate status becoming determinate), if true does such a Jew recite shelo asani isha if choosing to be a man

Question
My question lies in the correct interpretation of Habakkuk chapter 2 verse 4 as it is written in original Hebrew. I do not know Hebrew, and I go to Church, but I question many things, and I know that the law and prophets are not to be abolished. Therefore I question many things that Paul writes. I say this just to introduce why I have trouble understanding exactly what the Lord intends the reader to understand in Habakkuk's vision. In my NKJV bible chapter 2 verse 4 goes as following "Behold the proud, His soul is not upright in him; But the just shall live by his faith." It is then followed by "Indeed, because he transgresses by wine, He is a proud man. When I read this, I find it open to the interpretation that the Lord is not creating a juxtaposition between the Just and the faith of the Proud Man, but rather combining them together and stating the Just people in the times nearing the end are following a false prophet - the Proud Man. Obviously this has serious implications for Christianity if it is true, as Paul identifies with the Just in this passage and therefore all who follow him are subject to this warning. I do not know the original Hebrew though, and so I wonder if this interpretation is possible, correct, or incorrect in the eyes of a Rabbi, based on the original text without any translation. Thank you!