Question
I would like for a rabbi to answer this question for me. Suppose you have two men. One is straight and the other is gay. For the one who is straight, it is very easy not to violate the negative commandment in the Torah forbidding lying carnally with another man, and therefore easy to avoid the punishment for doing so. But for the gay man, it is very difficult to avoid violating the same commandment, and because he is most likely to commit this sin, he will suffer the punishment because of his attraction to men, a trait he has not chosen to have. This is just an example. Some people have the inborn desire to commit certain sins, almost to the point of being unable to have the control, and any effort to resist their urge to commit such a sin is too much to bear, either physically or emotionally. But because of this, they will be punished, all as another person not born with the same urge can easily avoid the punishment. My question is, how is that fair?

Question
Hi - I’m slowly increasing my level of observance and while we only buy kosher meat at home and separate milk and meat, we use the same dishes and buy foods with no hechsher. I just bought new dishes and thought I might use them strictly as my meat dishes but was wondering if I should toivel them if the foods that will be in them might not be kosher by all standards (foods prepped in my kitchen with pans and silverware that would not be considered kosher). Basically, should I toivel dishes if they won’t be used in the strictest kosher keeping kitchen?

Question
I am studying the Nachmanides commentary on Genesis ( translated by Rabbi Dr. Charles B. Chavel), and I have a question concerning the use of capitalization in one specific instance in the section under "And G-D called the firmament heaven." There is a sentence that ends with "and all Separate Intelligences which are incorporeal." Is the reason behind the use of capitalization here something that is allowed to be relayed? Thank you for your time.

Question
I know this might sound obvious, but I found it interesting that Cyrus the Great was described in the Tanakh as G-d's "Anointed One " who allowed the Jewish people to return to Jerusalem. If a non-Jew could be a little Mashiach, then why not the final Mashiach? I understand that verses like 2 Samuel 7:12-16 and Jeremiah 23:5 seem to assume a descendant of David, but is there any reason, in principle, there could not be a Non-Jewish Mashiach alongside a Jewish one? Thanks :)